which of the following is consistent with the data presented in the figure, which depicts three hypothetical interactions between macromolecule a and macromolecules b, c, and d?

Answers

Answer 1

The surfaces of A and D are well matched, which allows them to generate sufficient weak connections to endure temperature shocks, keeping them connected throughout the experiment.

Since the two carbons share electrons to form a potent covalent bond, the carbon-carbon bond is not regarded as a noncovalent interaction.

Non-covalent interactions between molecules entail a scattered variety of electromagnetic interactions rather than the exchange of electrons.

The donor atom must be electronegative for a hydrogen bond to form.

Ionic interactions: Attractions between two ions with opposing charges.

A tiny, transitory asymmetric electron distribution around atoms causes the formation of van der Waals forces.

Enzymes control the synthesis of it within the cell. Carbon-carbon bonds can be found in it. Hydrogen bonds hold the monomers of the molecule together. It is created by hydrolyzing monomers.

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Related Questions

if no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?

Answers

Option E is correct: 1, 2, 3, and 4 will all expand. Because the plasmid conferred ampicillin resistance and allowed the bacteria to utilize lactose.

The presence of a functional +lac gene on the plasmid was irrelevant because glucose was present in all cases, hence lactose was not exploited as a tool of selection. In this experiment, only ampicillin resistance was used as a mechanism of selection, which is why #5 and #6 were susceptible.

There are no significant effects on final protein function or final characteristic. This, in turn, has neither negative or good consequences for the organism's general well-being or survival.

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Full Question  ;

If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?

1. 4 and 6 only

2. 4, 5 and 6 only

3. 3 and 4 only

4. 1 and 2 only

5. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

the first organisms to grow on the rock are . these organisms are known as species because they are the first to colonize the area, breaking down rock to form .

Answers

The first organisms to grow on the rock are pioneer species. These organisms are known as pioneer species because they are the first to colonize the area, breaking down rock to form nutrients.

Pioneer species are the first organisms to grow on a rock, forming the basis for all subsequent life.

These species are adapted to the harsh environment of the rock and are able to break down the rock to release nutrients.

This process, known as weathering, allows other organisms to colonize the area and form a more diverse ecosystem. Pioneer species are essential for the success of any new environment, providing the necessary nutrients for other organisms to thrive.

Without these species, life on a rock would be impossible.

The presence of pioneer species is essential for the flourishing of any ecosystem, as they are the first to lay the groundwork for the establishment of a healthy environment.

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living systems use energy from the sun or from chemical compounds to do work. some of this energy is lost as heat, reducing the total amount of energy in the universe.

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Energy is often defined as the capacity to execute tasks or affect change. Energy comes in a variety of forms. Electrical energy, light energy, and heat energy are a few examples of several types of energy.

Understanding two of the fundamental laws that govern energy is essential to understanding how energy enters and leaves biological systems.

In other words, the universe's energy content has not changed over the course of history. Energy comes in a variety of forms. The first law of thermodynamics states that while energy can change forms or move between locations, it cannot be generated or destroyed.

The complete question is:

True/False: Living systems use energy from the sun or from chemical compounds to do work. Some of this energy is lost as heat, reducing the total amount of energy in the universe.

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List the populations that are affected by ultraviolet light and identify the effects on each of these populations.

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The population affected most by ultraviolet light are the people with light skin. People with light skin have little to no melanin which protect the skin against the effects of ultraviolet light against the skin. Most people with light skin use sunscreen and sun protect creams.

Effects of Ultraviolet light on Light skin.

Sunburn

Ultraviolet light causes sunburn. Sunburn is like a patch on the skin which is discoloured and a bit darker than the normal skin color.

Skin Cancer

Ultraviolet ray causes skin cancer. Both basal cell and squamous cell cancers are mostly found in patients that have exposed their skins to the ultraviolet light.

Aging.

Ultraviolet light causes changes in DNA which can lead to premature aging.

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This image best represents which level of biological organization?
OA. Body system
OB. Organ
O C. Cell
OD. Tissue

Answers

The correct option D. Tissue, this illustration exemplifies this degree of biological organization the finest.

Define the term tissue and its features?

A collection of cells with similar structures and functions is referred to as a tissue.

The intercellular matrix, a nonliving substance, fills the spaces here between cells. There might be a lot of this in specific tissues and little in others.A particular tissue may have special components in its intercellular matrix, such as fibers and salts, that are specific to that tissue and give it specialized properties. The body is made up of four different types of tissue: epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. Each has a purpose for which it was created.

The body's tissues give it form and aid in energy storage and heat retention.

Connective tissue, epithelial, muscle tissue, andnervous tissue are the four different types of tissues.

Thus, this illustration exemplifies this degree of biological organization the finest is "tissue".

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Reviewing binary fission in bacteria
Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.
1. Binary fission is a form of ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION because a single individual is the sole parent and passes copies of all its genes to its offspring.
2. During binary fission, DNA replication begins at the ORIGIN OF REPLICATION and continues all the way around the circular chromosome.
3. When DNA replication is complete and the bacterium has reached twice its original size, the PLASMA MEMBRANE grows inward, dividing the parent cell into two daughter cells.
4. In theory, the two daughter cells are GENETICALLY IDENTICAL TO each other and the parent cell.
5. However, mistakes made during DNA replication sometimes result in MUTATIONS, changes to the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
6. The rapid reproduction and large population sizes of many bacterial populations mean that even a small mutation rate can lead to considerable GENETIC VARIATION.

Answers

Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in which a single individual is the sole parent and passes mutation copies of all its genes to its offspring.

During binary fission, DNA replication begins at the origin of replication and continues all the way around the circular chromosome. When DNA replication is complete and the bacterium has reproduction reached twice its original size  binary fission, the plasma membrane grows inward, result in mutations, changes to the nucleotide sequence of DNA. The rapid reproduction and large population sizes of many bacterial populations  binary fission mean that even a small mutation rate can lead to considerable genetic variation. This high genetic variation is often reproduction beneficial for bacteria, as it increases their ability to adapt to changing environments.

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how frequently will a progeny plant with a genotype of rr yy arise from the following cross: rr yy x rr yy?

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a progeny plant with a genotype of rr yy arise from the following cross: rr yy x rr yy. in a dihybrid cross, recombination frequency is usually less than 50%.

To create a genetic linkage map, recombination frequency, a measure of genetic linkage, is used. In meiosis, the frequency of a single chromosomal crossover between two genes is known as the recombination frequency . A recombination frequency of 1% is expressed in terms of a centimorgan (cM). Based on the frequency of recombination between two loci, we may use this method to calculate the genetic distance between them. The actual distance is quite well estimated by this. When there is no recombination, double crossovers occur. Whether crossovers occurred in this instance is unknown. A twofold crossover is quite rare if the loci we're analysing are quite close (less than 7 cM). A double crossover happens more frequently as distances grow.

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suggest how each of the following adaptations would enable the named plant to survive in very dry conditions.

Answers

The correct answer is Ammophila. Marram lawn has a rolled splint that creates a localized terrain of water vapor attention within the splint and helps to help water loss.  

The stomata – the openings through which water vapor moves out of shops are sunk in recesses within the ringlets so they can hang on to as important H20 as possible. Unexpectedly, Marram Grass isn't particularly swab tolerant – but can manage with utmost deepwater conditions.  

Ammophila is a beach meadow that holds this natural hedge together and also helps too important beaches from being washed into the ocean, which causes littoral corrosion. Unfortunately,  sand meadows can be damaged fluently when people walk on them, which is why beachgoers see numerous “ Stay off the stacks ” signs.

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elastic potential energy lab: the jump-up toy(75 pts)objective:students will work with different scenarios that each have to do with the jump-up toy. they will use their knowledge of conservation of energy to solve for each scenario

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The objective of this lab is for students to apply their understanding of conservation of energy to different scenarios involving a jump-up toy.

A jump-up toy is a small, spring-loaded device that can be pressed down and released, causing it to jump up. The students will work through different scenarios that involve this toy, using their knowledge of conservation of energy to solve for each one. This lab is designed to help students understand the concept of potential energy and how it can be transformed into kinetic energy through the use of the jump-up toy. The lab will also help students understand how to apply the conservation of energy principle to real-world situations.

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two genes, a and b, assort independently. what will be the most likely genotype proportions of the progeny from the following cross? a/a b/b x a/a b/b (capital letters represent the dominant phenotype conferred by each gene.)

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The genes or alleles that sort into newly produced gametes independently of one another are referred to as independent assortment. The autonomous division of chromosomes into different gametes results in this independent assortment.

Keep in mind that crossing over occurs when genes on each chromosome are altered. According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles from two (or more) distinct genes are sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele received by a gamete for one gene has no effect on the allele received for another gene. When genes are discovered on multiple chromosomes or at different locations on the same chromosome, they assort independently and are referred to as unlinked.

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Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health

Answers

Option D, The Energy Policy Act of 1992 required the federal government to list stationary or mobile energy usage source pollutants that could endanger public health. This statement is true.

The Energy Policy Act of 1992 was a federal law that aimed to reduce the country's dependence on foreign oil, increase the use of alternative energy sources, and improve the efficiency of energy usage. The act set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels. Energy Policy Act of 1992 also established a reserve of oil in the United States energy usage in order to prevent gasoline shortages. However, it did not require the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project. The Energy Policy Act of 1992 had a wide range of provisions that aimed to address various aspects of the energy usage industry and it's consumption.

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Answer:

Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.

Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health

Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project

Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages

To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels

Explanation:

Answer:

To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels

You read about soapberry bugs and select the correct statement describing relative fitness in these individuals.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness feeds more successfully on fruits than do other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has more mates than other bugs.

Answers

A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.

Relative fitness is defined as the reproductive success of an organism within a population.

The survival of the fittest genotype or phenotype in the population.

survival of the fittest concept is given by the Darwin, where various examples are given to explain how the fittest and most adaptative organism survives it all and increase its population.

The soapberry bugs being the fittest, will be dominant on the rest of the population and will be produce high number of offsprings.

Relative fitness is used to calculate the change in genotype frequency is of a particular genotype.

The genotype of the fittest will always be 1.

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Over time, bacteria have become increasingly resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following best explains this in terms of natural selection?Bacteria that happen to have natural resistance to antibiotics survived and reproduced.

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The survival and reproduction of bacteria that have a built-in resistance to antibiotics. When bacteria, fungus, and other microorganisms learn to resist the medications meant to kill them, its antimicrobial resistance.

Because of this, the bacteria survive and develop. Treatment options for resistant illnesses can be limited or perhaps unavailable. Antimicrobial resistance mechanisms can be divided into four major groups: (1) reducing drug uptake; (2) altering drug targets; (3) inactivating drugs; and (4) active drug efflux. Use of antibiotics is the primary contributor to antibiotic resistance. Some bacteria die when we take antibiotics, but bacteria that are resistant can live and even proliferate. Antibiotic resistance microorganisms are more prevalent as a result of misuse.

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ppplleaseee answerrr

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B!

Explanation:

The autonomic nervous system, also called the visceral efferent nervous system, supplies motor impulses to cardiac muscle, to smooth muscle, and to glandular epithelium.

which of the statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. in mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions. homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. the products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not duri

Answers

Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. this statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis.

In cell biology, the division of replicated chromosomes into two new nuclei occurs during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Mitosis is a process of cell division that creates genetically identical cells with a constant chromosome count. Thus, equational division is another name for the process of mitosis. Typically, cytokinesis, which splits a cell's cytoplasm, organelles, and cell membrane into two new cells with nearly equal amounts of these biological components, happens after telophase and before mitosis, which is preceded by S phase of interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. The division of the mother cell into two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another defines the mitotic (M) phase of the animal cell cycle, which is defined by the several mitotic stages.

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Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. The genetic code b. The machinery of replication and protein synthesis c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins e. All of the above

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The feature that is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor, is The genetic code (Option A)

The genetic code is the set of rules by which DNA and RNA translate into the amino acid sequences of proteins. This code is universal, meaning that the same sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA will always code for the same amino acid sequence in a protein, regardless of the organism in which it is found. This universality is strong evidence for a common ancestor from which all living things have evolved.

The machinery of replication and protein synthesis, basic metabolic reactions, and the use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins also support the idea of a common ancestor but are not as strong evidence as the genetic code.

The use of adult stem cells has many pros and cons which statement below is a con of using adult stem cells?

A. Adult stem cells are not specialized and can differentiate into specialized cells.
B. Adult stem cells can potentially cure and be used to study different human diseases.
C. Adult stem cells are thought to be limited to the types of cells in the tissue of origin.
D. Adult stem cells can potentially repair damaged or destroyed cells or to show

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

Adult stem cells cannot differentiate into any type of cell whereas an embryonic cell can differentiate into more cells

PLEASE HELP I HAVE A PICTURE

Answers

Sinks below because if you can see in the picture it shows that the ocean plate goes down

Answer:

RISES ABOVE

Explanation:

When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic crust will always subduct under the continental crust; this is because oceanic crust is naturally denser. Convergent boundaries are commonly associated with larger earthquakes and higher volcanic activity.

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Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are

Answers

Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are advantageous adaptive traits.

What are advantageous adaptive traits?

Advantageous adaptive traits are nay phenotypic features that can be selected in a differential enviroment and show an enhanced ability for the organism to reproduce and or survive.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that advantageous adaptive traits are that they are advantageous to the organism in some way such as for example, a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment may be considered advantageous in these conditions.

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beaker #1 has 93% water contains a cell with 93% water
beaker #2 has 91% water conatins a cell with 80% water
beaker #3 has 92% water contains cell with 99%water
Beaker #4 has 95% water and a cell with 90% water
Which cell would shrink in this example?

Answers

The cell that would shrink will be the one in beaker #3. Option 3.

What is water potential?

The water potential of a system is the potential energy possessed by the water in the system per unit volume relative to that of pure water in reference conditions.

Water molecules usually move from the region of high to the region of low water potential through a semi-permeable membrane.

Both the cell and beaker in beaker #1 have the same water potential. Thus, the cell cannot lose water.The beaker has more water potential than the cell in beaker #2. Thus, the cell will gain water.The beaker has a lower water potential than the cell in beaker #3. Thus, water will move from the cell to the beaker, leading to the shrinking of the cell.The beaker has more water potential than the cell in beaker #4. Thus, the cell will gain water.

In other words, only in beaker #3 will the cell shrinks.

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Define: A phase change is a change from one state to another, such as from a liquid to a gas. Based on what you have read in the Gizmo, fill in the blanks with the words “liquid,” “gas,” or “solid” to define each change.

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Based on what you have read in the Gizmo, the fill up of the blanks with the words “liquid,” “gas,” or “solid” are:

Melting is a change from a solid to a liquid.Freezing is a change from a liquid to a solid.Vaporization is a change from a liquid to a gas.Condensation is a change from a gas to a liquid.Sublimation is a change from a solid to a gas.Deposition is a change from a gas to a solid.What is the Gizmo about?

Melting is the process of converting a solid into a liquid by increasing its temperature. As the temperature of a solid increases, its particles gain energy and begin to move more quickly.

Eventually, at a certain temperature known as the melting point, the particles have enough energy to overcome the forces holding them together and the solid becomes a liquid.

Note that Freezing is the opposite process of melting, it is the process of converting a liquid into a solid by decreasing its temperature. As the temperature of a liquid decreases, its particles lose energy and begin to move more slowly. Eventually, at a certain temperature known as the freezing point, the particles have lost enough energy to overcome the forces holding them apart and the liquid becomes a solid.

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Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following EXCEPT:

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Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following except sodium metabisulfite  test

Hb electrophoresis is a blood test performed to check the types of hemoglobin in the blood. The purpose of Hb electrophoresis is to diagnose hemoglobin disorders. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that functions to transport oxygen to all organs and tissues of the body. This blood test is done by taking a blood sample and then analyzing it in the laboratory.

The sodium metabisulfite test is used to determine the content of sodium metabisulfite in the blood. Sodium metabisulfite is an inorganic food preservative and water-soluble anti-oxidant for food to inhibit browning reactions. These preservatives can cause digestive problems, such as diarrhea, stomach cramps, nausea, and skin allergies. .

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what form of energy transformed the way humans survive

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Heat energy transformed the way humans survive. It is also known as thermal energy.

What is heat energy?

The movement of minuscule atoms, molecules, or ions in solids, liquids, and gases produces heat energy. From one thing to another, heat energy can be exchanged. Heat is the flow or transfer that occurs as a result of the temperature differential between two objects.

At a thermal power plant, heat is converted into electricity, which powers our daily activities. The measurement of how hot or cold something is is called its temperature.

Thus, Heat energy transformed the way humans survive.

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7. Which statement BEST explains why enzymes bind to
specific substrates?
A. An enzyme can be inhibited so its active site is
altered.
B. An enzyme folds differently in the presence of
different substrates.
c. Different amino acid sequences cause variations in
the shapes of an enzyme's active sites.
D. Enzyme-substrate binding is based on size so only
large enzymes can bind to large substrates.

Answers

An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.

Why do enzymes bind to specific substrates?An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.A protein molecule known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in biological processes.It accomplishes this by operating on a substrate unique to its form.The enzyme-substrate complex is created when the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.The product then separates from the enzyme molecule, signaling the end of the process.After that, the enzyme is free to interact with new substrate molecules. Having an active site that only permits specific substrates to bind to it, enzymes are specific to the substrates they bind to.The active site's design prevents other substrates from attaching to it, which is why this occurs.The shape of the enzyme modifies somewhat as substrate molecules bind to its active site.

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what does it mean for a gene to be turned off or not expressed

Answers

Answer:

gene regulation

Explanation:

each cell expresses only a fraction of it's genes.expresses or turns on means that protein is being produced from that gene.the rest of the genes are turned off or repressed meaning that no protein is being produced from those genes.

looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above, which of the following is a true statement?

Answers

Looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above this is the statement, a backbone is a shared ancestral character in mammals (leopard).

phylogeny can be defined as the evolutionary history of a species or group of species and a phylogenetic tree will give an idea out the history and classification of an organism.

A character which is originated in an ancestor of the taxon, the shared character itself describes the relationship between the ancestor and the current generation, in the same way mammals share the backbone among themselves.

shared character means, they are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny and a phylogenetic tree from the ancestors

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sort the subatomic particles according to their masses. drag each subatomic particles into the correct bin

Answers

MASS OF ~1 AMU: neutron, proton

MASS OF ~1/2000 AMU: electron

These particles are frequently referred to as subatomic particles since they are the building blocks of atoms. There are protons, neutrons, and electrons, three types of subatomic particles.

With a mass of 1.0087 amu, the neutron is the heaviest subatomic particle while the proton has a mass of 1.0073 amu. The mass of an electron is 0.00055 amu, as is that of a positron.

smallest known subatomic electrically charged particle. The fundamental charge of electricity is a negative charge carried by electrons. In comparison to other subatomic particles, an electron has an extremely little mass.

Subatomic particles include the heavier constituents of the atom's small but incredibly dense nucleus as well as electrons, the negatively charged, nearly massless particles that nonetheless make up the majority of the atom's size.

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watch darwin's theory of evolution with what he felt was evidence. group of answer choices organisms became different over time. [ choose ] evolution occurs slowly over extended periods of time. [ choose ] organisms have common ancestors. [ choose ] the process that drives evolution is natural selection.

Answers

Darwin's theory of evolution basically indicated that natural selection is what drives evolution and the evolution of a population of organism happens slowly which causes these organisms change over time.

Charles Darwin proposed that evolution occurs as a result of a phenomenon which is known as natural selection. Natural selection is basically the process by which the organisms which have the desirable traits, that is, the traits which give them a survival advantage over the other organisms in a population survive.

This evolution via natural selection occurs over a large period of time involving several generations of an organism. These changes cause an organism to change over time.

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The continuum below shows the development of the human embryo into an adult and the types of stem cells involved.
List the four types of stem cells, give an example of each type, and explain how much each type can differentiate.

Answers

The embryo (at this stage known as a blastocyst) comprises an inner cell mass that is capable of producing all the specialized tissues that make up the human body during days 3-5 after fertilization and prior to implantation.

What are stem cells?

ESCs are produced from the inner cell mass of an in vitro fertilized embryo that has been given for study after receiving informed consent. ESCs are not made from eggs that have been fertilized inside of a woman.

Only found in the early stages of development, pluripotent stem cells are capable of developing into practically any form of cell. The goal of research is to comprehend how these cells differentiate during development.

We may be able to apply these developmental mechanisms to stem cells de rived from adult stem cells as we learn more about them.

Therefore, The embryo (at this stage known as a blastocyst) comprises an inner cell mass that is capable of producing all the specialized tissues that make up the human body during days 3-5 after fertilization and prior to implantation.

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Which statement best describes how selective breeding affects the genetic makeup of purebred dog populations?


A. Dogs exhibiting desirable characteristics are bred only with one another, so genetic diversity decreases.

B. Purebred dog breeds have higher rates of genetic mutation than mixed breeds, so genetic diversity increases.

C. Desirable characteristics, such as soft fur, become more common in purebred dogs, so genetic diversity increases.

D. All harmful traits are eliminated from purebred dog breeds, so genetic diversity decreases.

Answers

Dogs exhibiting desirable characteristics are bred only with one another, so genetic diversity decreases best describes how selective breeding affects the genetic makeup of purebred dog populations. Option A. is the correct answer.

What IS selective breeding genetic makeup?

This refers to choosing parents that have particular characteristics to breed together and give rise to offspring with more desirable characteristics. Humans have selectively bred plants and animals for thousands of years including crop plants with better yields.

Selective breeding has three techniques namely:

inbreeding linebreeding outcrossing .

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Hans is a manager of a bookstore. At the end of each year, he gives his employees performance reviews to let them know what they are doing well, what they need to improve on, and their annual raise amount. This is a form of ________ communication. In a redox reaction electron are donated and accepted by molecules or atoms a. water is formed by all the extra protons coming together b.an electron gradient is generated across the mitochondria inner membrane c.proteins are precursors for electron carriers d.electron carriers, NADH and FADN2, pick up electrons from the PLEASE HELP. I WILL MARK BRAINLIESTwrite a 400-500-word essay that answers the question: Who am I, and who am I in relation to others? At minimum, include in your essay: A self-descriptionA discussion of how you are similar to and different from those around youHow your performances shape communication you have with those around you if these objects roll without slipping down a ramp, which one will reach the bottom of the ramp first? multiplechoice : 1) there is not enough information to determine 2) object b 3) object a 4) they will reach the bottom at the same time. The function f(x) is shown on the graph.The graph shows a downward opening parabola with a vertex at 3 comma 25, a point at negative 2 comma 0, a point at 8 comma 0, a point at 0 comma 16, and a point at 6 comma 16.What is the standard form of the equation of f(x)? a) f(x) = x2 6x + 16 b) f(x) = x2 + 6x + 16 c) f(x) = x2 6x + 16 d) f(x) = x2 + 6x + 16 what happened to alexia son frankie from housewives of miami QuestionThis graph shows a proportional relationship.What is the constant of proportionality?Enter your answer in the box.Graph titled Math Test Raw Scores. The vertical axis is labeled Points. The horizontal axis is labeled Correct answers. The horizontal axis ranges from 0 to 24 in increments of 2. The vertical axis ranges from 0 to 120 in increments of 10. A line passes through the origin and the points begin ordered pair 5 comma 30 end ordered pair and begin ordered pair 12 comma 72 end ordered pair and begin ordered pair 18 comma 108 end ordered pair and begin ordered pair 20 comma 120 end ordered pair. Based on the information above, what would be the relationship between a flea and its canine or feline victim? mexico encounters severe inflation the u.s. economy moves into a severe recession interest rates in the u.s. increase drug violence along the border reduces american tourism in mexico Find the value of x rounded to the nearest tenth. in this experiment, the pressure of the gas was 1.000 atm and the temperature was 294.6 k. what value do you get for the gas constant using the data you recorded for propane? How many Br-ions are present in 1.00 moles of FeBr3?a. 6.022 x 10^23b. 12.04 x 10^23c. 1.81 x 10^24d. 6.02 x 10^25 help Choose Yes or No to tell if the operation will give an equivalent ratio for 8/20.. a factor that affects the size and distribution of the population in a given area is , which refers to the movement of people from one geographic area to another for the purpose of changing residency. The U.S. population in 2018 was estimated to be 327,200,000 within that population, there were 30,357,000 people who were 18-29 years old and 52,431,000 people who were 65 years and olderAccording to the graphic, 85% of the 30,357,000 people who were 18-29 years old tried vaping or electronic cigarettes Approximately how many people ages 18-29 said that they have tried vaping or e-cigarettes? Show your work Parallel structure! see picture for question! Hello can someone kind help me with all my problems The points B(-9,1), C(-4,-1), D(-2,4)B(9,1),C(4,1),D(2,4), and E(-7,7)E(7,7) form quadrilateral BCDE. Plot the points then click the "Graph Quadrilateral" button. Each choice below describes how a few astronomical phenomena are related to time periods. Which list is entirely correct? (Careful: some lists are partially correct.) A) Earth's rotation defines a day.The cycle of the Moon's phases takes about a month.Earth's orbit defines a year.Earth's cycle of axis precession takes 26,000 years. B) Earth's rotation defines a day.The cycle of the Moon's phases takes about a week.Earth's orbit defines a year.Earth's cycle of axis precession defines a month. C) Earth's rotation defines a day.The Sun's rotation defines a week.The Moon's rotation defines a month.Earth's orbit defines a year.D) Earth's rotation defines a day.The saros cycle of eclipses defines a month.Earth's orbit defines a year.Earth's cycle of axis precession takes 26,000 years. lee started drinking alcohol during his sophomore year of college. now that he is a senior, he finds he must drink more to get the same effects he had when he was a sophomore. why has this occurred