solve ??? If any1 can

Answer: True

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18+7=7+18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.01?

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

9x - 2 = 5x + 54 because these angles are corresponding

9x - 5x = 54 + 2 add/subtract like terms

4x = 56 and this divided by 4

x = 14

9x - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180° because these two angles makes a straight line

9×14 - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180°

126 - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180° add like terms

130 + 10y = 180° subtract 130 from both sides

10y = 50 divide by 10

y = 10

Anwers:

22    is the answer

Answer:

y= (-4/1)x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The square root of 16=4, 4x2=8, x2=8.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a= 10 b= 6

Step-by-step explanation:

When multiplying exponents they should be added together and when dividing they should be subtracted from each other.

2+8=10 & 10-4= 6

Answer:

$1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of half of dozen of cupcakes at Sweet Shoppe = $16.50.

The cost of a dozen cupcakes at Cupcake factory = $30.00. Therefore the  cost of half a dozen cupcakes at Cupcake factory = $30.00 / 2 = $15.00

The difference in purchases =  cost of half a dozen cupcakes at Sweet Shoppe - cost of half of dozen of cupcakes at cupcake factory

The difference in purchases = $16.50 - $15.00 = $1.50

This means that their is a difference of $1.50 for half a dozen cupcakes between the Sweet Shoppe and cupcake factory.

Answer: $13.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Everything you do is multiply 75 by 0.18 ( 0.18 represents 18%)

which gives you 13.5, so the tip would be $13.50

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Buddhism split into three groups based on the places where it spread.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Buddhism split into three groups based on the places where it spread.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

The base area of a right circular cone is [tex]\dfrac{1}{4}[/tex] of its total surface area.

To find:

The ratio of the radius  to the slant height.

Solution:

We know that,

Area of base of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi r^2[/tex]

Total surface area of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

where, r is radius and l is slant height.

According to the question,

[tex]\pi r^2=\dfrac{1}{4}(\pi rl+\pi r^2)[/tex]

Multiply both sides by.

[tex]4\pi r^2=\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

[tex]4\pi r^2-\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

[tex]3\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

Cancel out the common factors from both sides.

[tex]3r=l[/tex]

Now, ratio of the radius  to the slant height is

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{r}{3r}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

Therefore, the ratio of the radius  to the slant height is 1:3.

Answer:

this would be your answer not sure if you need to round 4.085 so pretty much the answer would be 3 because you have enough for about 4 and a half

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 11356.2 milliliters in 3 us gallons

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{26}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer

I would say the 3rd one.

Step-by-step explanation:

I do not really remember this but I am in 8th grade math to (Algebra)

Answer: bsf google

Step-by-step explanation: go to google look it up and find the answer

Answer:

x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

It's x-3 because if you put 12-3 it will be 9 but if you add x+4 it will be 16

The probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

Here,

Since the length of the pipes follows a uniform distribution on the interval [10 feet, 10.57 feet], the probability density function (PDF) for each pipe is:

f(x) = 1 / (10.57 - 10) = 1 / 0.57 ≈ 1.7544 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57

Since the lengths of the pipes are independent, the joint probability density function (PDF) of X and Y is the product of their individual PDFs:

f(x, y) = f(x) * f(y) = 1.7544 * 1.7544 = 3.0805 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57 and 10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57

Now, we want to find the probability that the second pipe (Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (X).

Mathematically, we want to find P(Y > X + 0.11).

Let's set up the integral to calculate this probability:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∬[10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57] [y > x + 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

We integrate with respect to x first and then with respect to y:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] ∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] 3.0805 dx] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (x)] from x = 10 to x = y - 0.11 dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (y - (10 - 0.11))] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] (y - 9.89) dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(y² / 2) - 9.89y] from y = 10 to y = 10.57

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((10.57)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10.57 - (((10)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((111.7249 / 2) - 104.9135 - (50 / 2 - 98.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(55.86245 - 104.9135 + 49.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [0.84895]

P(Y > X + 0.11) ≈ 2.6092

Therefore, the probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

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Answer:

Y-intercepts: (0,6)

X-intercepts: (8,0)

Answer:

Y-intercept: (0,-6)

X-intercept: (-8,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find an intercept, you have to know the difference in the two axis. The intercept is just where the plot line hits the axis. On the top, left side, you can see that the blue line his the black x-axis at -8 over to the right but it doesn't mover down. This means the x-intercept hits at (-8,0). On the upper, right side, you can see that the blue line his the black y-axis by not moving sideways, but it does go -6 down. This means that the y-intercept would be (0,-6).

Answer:

you will add $1.53 to every bracelet you make

Step-by-step explanation:

figure out what 85 percent of 1.80 is and then add that to 1.80 for the total price

85% x 1.8 = 1.53 (markup ammount)

1.80 + 1.53 = 3.33 (total cost)

Dividing f(x) by 2x + 5 leaves the same remainder as division by x + 5/2. By the remainder theorem, it is equal to f (-5/2), so the remainder here is

f (-5/2) = 8 (-5/2)³ + 4 (-5/2)² - 13 (-5/2) + 3 = -129/2

Answer:

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁶ = $

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.89035 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 26 periods) = $760.07

current market price = $408.84 + $760.07 = $1,168.91

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁴ = $437.96

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.05837 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 24 periods) = $722.63

market price = $437.96 + $722.63 = $1,160.59

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁰ = $502.57

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 14.2124 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 20 periods) = $639.56

market price = $502.57+ $639.56 = $1,142.13

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)¹⁰ = $708.92

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 8.31661 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 10 periods) = $374.25

market price = $708.92 + $374.25 = $1,083.17

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)² = $933.51

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 1.89969 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 2 periods) = $85.49

market price = $933.51 + $85.49 = $1,019

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $45 = $1,045

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁶ = $318.40

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 15.14661 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 26 periods) = $530.13

current market price = $318.40 + $530.13 = $847.53

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁴ = $347.70

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 14.49548 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 24 periods) = $507.34

market price = $347.70 + $507.34 = $855.04

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁰ = $414.64

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 13.00794 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 20 periods) = $455.28

market price = $414.64+ $455.28 = $869.92

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)¹⁰ = $643.93

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 7.91272 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 10 periods) = $276.95

market price = $643.93 + $276.95 = $920.88

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)² = $915.73

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 1.87267 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 2 periods) = $65.54

market price = $915.73 + $65.54 = $981.27

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $35 = $1,035

Answer:

It is changing at -11 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance d is given by

d = √x²+(90-y)²

We have to differentiate

dy/st = 25ft

dx/dt = -15ft

The question says after 2 seconds

Y = 25x2 = 50ft

X = -15x2 = -30ft

Then we calculate rate of change of distance. From the calculations I did, I arrived at

(1/2√900+1600).[900-2000]

= -1100/2x50

= -1100/100

= -11ft

Please check attachment to help you understand the answer better as it is more detailed.

The distance between these two runners changing 2 s after the ball is hit 11 ft

The rate of change of a function with respect to the variable is called differentiation. It can be increasing or decreasing.

A baseball diamond is a square with sides 90 ft long.

A batter is at bat, with runners at first and second base.

At the moment the ball is hit, the runner at first base runs to second base at 25 ft/s.

Simultaneously, the runner on second base runs to third base at 15 ft/s.

The distance d is given by

[tex]\rm d = \sqrt{x^{2} +(90-y)^2}[/tex]

We have to differentiate

[tex]\rm \dfrac{dy}{st} = 25 \ ft\\\\\dfrac{dx}{dt} = -15 \ ft[/tex]

The question says after 2 seconds

[tex]\rm Y = 25x ^2 = 50 \ ft\\\\X = -15x^2 = -30 \ ft[/tex]

Then we calculate the rate of change of distance will be

[tex]\rm \dfrac{1 }{2\sqrt{900 + 1600}} * (900 - 2000) = \dfrac{-1100}{2*50} = \dfrac{-1100}{100} = -11\ ft[/tex]

More about the differentiation link is given below.

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Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

True because if AC = BC, then the triangles are the same.

The side AC is congruent to the side BC the statement is true.

The Side-Angle-Side Congruence Theorem (SAS) defines two triangles to be congruent to each other if the included angle and two sides of one are congruent to the included angle and corresponding two sides of the other triangle.

In the given figure we can see that the ∠ACD ≅ ∠BCD and AB ⊥ CD mean that the line CD is dividing the line AB into two equal parts.

Therefore, the side AC is congruent to the side BC the statement is true.

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Answer:

i love free points dont you