Pls help with times tables if u click there will be a picture

Answers: set the expression 3x equals to 0 and set the expression x-6 equal to 0, then solve both equations for x

Step-by-step explanation: x = 0, x = 6

Answer:

x=11

Step-by-step explanation:

supplementary angles add up to 180 degrees

10x + 70 =180

10x = 110

x=11

11x10 = 110  

 110+70 = 180

Answer:

A= 19 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the area of a rectangle, it would be LxW

so you would take 5 1/2 x 3 1/2. this would give you 19 1/4

Answer:

false and can you please help me on my last question i posted its bout john henry

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer is 2.8 im not sure so check with another person mark me as brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

if you divide 10 divided by 2 it gives you 5 and then subtract it by 2.2 = 2.8

there goes your answer.

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

5% of 600 is 30 so that should be ur answer

Answer:

2000 is the answers.............

Answer:

97.4 inches squared

Answer:

4.) 15

Step-by-step explanation:

90 - 75 = 15 which would be the answer.

Answer:

Physical activy used for pleasure.

Step-by-step explanation:

It's just a meaning so I can't provide an explanation.

Answer:

(32,92) and (−1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to equal the two Ys, meaning their values as well or you can find the value of the first x and then plug it in the second equation. There are many ways to solve this to.

D. f-1(x) = x-4/6

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 6x + 4

-4

y-4 = 6x

÷6

y-4/6 = x

(Swap y and x around to find the inverse)

Inverse will be:

x - 4/6 = y

So, f-1(x) = x-4/6

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3) Congruent segments added to congruent segments form congruent segments

4) [tex]\overline{AD} \parallel \overline{BC}[/tex] (opposite sides of a parallelogram are parallel)

5) [tex]\angle FAH \cong \angle GCE[/tex] (if 2 parallel lines are cut by a transversal, the alternate interior angles are congruent)

6) [tex]\triangle GEC \cong \triangle HFA[/tex] (ASA)

Answer:

(1, 15), (2, 30), (3, 45), (4, 60)

Step-by-step explanation:

So the values are already given to you in the table, it's just a matter of turning them into ordered pairs. Ordered pairs are a set of numbers that represent a point on the coordinate plane. On the graph, the x-axis (horizontal) is for time and the y-axis (vertical) is for the amount of push-ups. An ordered pair is (x, y) so you put (amount of minutes, amount of push-ups). For how they're related, how many push-ups he did increases by 15 for every minute. So, the y-value increases by 15 when the x-value increases by 1.

Answer:

20b

Step-by-step explanation:

3+8+9

3+8=11

9+11=20

3b+8b+9b

3b+8b=11b

11b+9b=20b

Answer:

Since they all have the same variable, you add them all together. so it would be 20b !!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

60% in a fraction is: 60/100

60/100 of a variable, x, is equal to 90.

So we format it this way and solve for x;

60/100 * x = 90

60/100x = 90

0.6x = 90

/0.6    /0.6

x = 150, is the number.

The relationship iof the ostrich running at 43 miles per hour is proportional.

Since speed = distance per unit time

The speed of the ostrich is 43 miles per hour. This means that the ostrich covers a distance of 43 miles every hour.

Since the ostrich always covers a distance of 43 miles every hour, we see that distance is proportional to time.

So, the relationship iof the ostrich running at 43 miles per hour is proportional.

Learn more about proportionality here:

https://brainly.com/question/24868934

[tex]f(x) = (tan(5x)+2)^2\\\\f'(x) = 2(tan(5x) +2)*\frac{d}{dx}(tan(5x)+2) = 2(tan(5x)+2)*5sec^2(5x)\\ =(2tan(5x)+4)*5sec^2(5x)\\ =10tan(5x)*sec^2(5x)+20sec^2(5x)[/tex]

Hope that helps!

The width of the cloud is 12500 meters wide.

The situation forms a right angle triangle.

Right angle triangle are triangle that has one of its sides as 90 degrees. The sides can be found using trigonometric ratios.

Therefore, the altitude is the opposite side of the triangle formed. The width of the cloud is the adjacent side of the triangle formed.

tan 10 = opposite / adjacent

Therefore,

tan 10° = 2200 / a

cross multiply

a = 2200 / tan 10°

a = 2200 / 0.1763269807

a = 12500 meters

Therefore, the width of the cloud is 12500 meters .

learn more on right triangle here: https://brainly.com/question/2883415

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of cube = edge³

                           = 12*12*12

                           = 1728 in³

Volume of prism = volume of 64 cubes

                            = 64 * volume of a cube

                            = 64 * 1728

                            = 110592 in³

Answer:

they are not simular

Step-by-step explanation:

one has longer sides then the other and one has shorter sides

Answer:

81 inches is 6.75 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

6.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

81 Inches to Feet

Note;

Formula of Inches to Feet : divide the length value by 12

Solve;

81/12 = 6.75

Thus, Result of converting 81 inches to feet is 6.75

[RevyBreeze]

Answer:

8. B.

9. B.

10. B.

11. No answer choices.

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, they are all actually B. Hope this helps!

Answer: B, B, B

Step-by-step explanation: The last question has no answer choices shown.

Answer:

y- 1/2x+8

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is negative 1/2

Answer: z = 3

Step-by-step explanation: 1 centimeter = 1 month so 3 centimeter = 3 months

[tex]81x^{2} -121=(9x-11)(9x+11)[/tex]

Hope that helped!

Factoring:

     [tex]81x^2-121=(9x+11)(9x-11)[/tex]

Hope that helps!

The series you had provided is generally the Maclaurin's series , and we want to prove the series , this series is very very much useful in calculus , especially when you have to substitute a function by it's series . So now let's start !

Consider the function f(x) as series of a polynomials of nth (n ≥ 1) degree as

[tex]{\boxed{\bf{f(x)=a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^{2}+a_{3}x^{3}+a_{4}x^{4}+\cdots \cdots \infty}}}[/tex]

Now , at x = 0

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f(0)=a_{0}+a_{1}(0)+a_{2}(0)^{2}+a_{3}(0)^{3}+a_{4}(0)^{4}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

[tex]{\boxed{:\implies \quad \sf f(0)=a_{0}}}[/tex]

Now , again consider the function that we assumed

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f(x)=a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^{2}+a_{3}x^{3}+a_{4}x^{4}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Differentiating both sides w.r.t.x will yield

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime}(x)=0+a_{1}\times 1+a_{2}\times 2\times x+a_{3}\times 3\times x^{2}+a_{4}\times 4\times x^{3}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime}(x)=a_{1}+2a_{2}x+3a_{3}x^{2}+4a_{4}x^{3}\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Now , put x = 0 ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime}(0)=a_{1}+2a_{2}(0)+3a_{3}(0)^{2}+4a_{4}(0)^{3}\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime}(0)=a_{1}}[/tex]

[tex]{\boxed{:\implies \quad \sf a_{1}=\dfrac{f^{\prime}(0)}{1!}}}[/tex]

Now , consider ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime}(x)=a_{1}+2a_{2}x+3a_{3}x^{2}+4a_{4}x^{3}\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Differentiating both sides w.r.t.x now ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime \prime}(x)=0+2\times a_{2}\times 1+3\times a_{3}\times 2\times x+4\times a_{4}\times 3\times x^{2}\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime \prime}(x)=2a_{2}+6a_{3}x+12a_{4}x^{2}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Now , putting x = 0 will yield ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime \prime}(0)=2a_{2}+6a_{3}(0)+12a_{4}(0)^{2}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f^{\prime \prime}(0)=2a_{2}}[/tex]

[tex]{\boxed{:\implies \quad \sf a_{2}=\dfrac{f^{\prime \prime}(0)}{2!}}}[/tex]

Now , similarly we can prove that ;

[tex]{\boxed{:\implies \quad \sf a_{n}=\dfrac{f^{n}(0)}{n!}}}[/tex]

Now , as we had considered ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f(x)=a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^{2}+a_{3}x^{3}+a_{4}x^{4}+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Now , putting the values we obtained above ;

[tex]{:\implies \quad \sf f(x)=f(0)+\dfrac{x}{1!}f^{\prime}(0)+\dfrac{x^2}{2!}f^{\prime \prime}(0)+\dfrac{x^3}{3!}f^{\prime \prime \prime}(0)+\dfrac{x^4}{4!}f^{\prime \prime \prime \prime}(0)+\cdots \cdots \dfrac{x^n}{n!}f^{n}(0)+\cdots \cdots \infty}[/tex]

Hence , Proved