Dog slept 3 hours . If the dog snored 1/3 of an hour . How many times did he snore

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

you said that in the problem lol

Answer:

  17 like both bookkeeping and commerce

Step-by-step explanation:

The problem statement itself tells you ...

  "17 like both bookkeeping and commerce"

Answer:

2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

0.4 x 10/10

= 4/10 divide by 2

=2/5

Answer:

1 is acute

2 is a right triangle

3 is obtuse

Step-by-step explanation:

A 90 degree angle will be written as a box in the corner. Any angle less than 90 is acute, and any angle more than 90 is obtuse.

Answer:2(4t-9-10t+7) is answer and for the next it 2(-6t-2)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Parallel lines have identical slopes

4x - 7y = 9

7y = 4x - 9

y = (4/7)x - 9/7

so the parallel line has form

y = (4/7)x + b

plug in the point on the line

3 = (4/7)7 + b

b = -1

y = (4/7)x - 1

As you did not tell us where you live and what time you intend to go to bed, we have NO way of knowing your actual deadline

Answer:

x = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

you divide 15 by 3 first because of pemdas

15 divided by 3 = 5

4 + 5 = 9

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The top left angle is 55 (alternate interior angles).

x + 100 + 55 = 180                     All triangles are made up of 180 degrees

x + 155 = 180                             Subtract 155 from both sides.

x = 180 - 155                              Combine

x = 25

Hence, 'x = 25°' is the value of 'x'

Hoped this helped.

[tex]-BrainiacUser1357-[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(y + 3) = (1/8)(x - 2)

Answer:

I'm going to call the length of the bracelet the number of times you have to add to get back to the first bead. This is the same as the number of beads, except in one case:

The shortest bracelet has length 1 and starts with (0,0). If you add one time, you get back to the first 0. But the bracelet has two beads. (Every bracelet has to have at least two beads to start.)

The next shortest bracelet starts with (0,5), and has length 3:

0 5 5

There is a bracelet of length 4 that starts with (2,6) (the first example on the main page):

2 6 8 4

There is a bracelet of length 12 that starts with (1,3) (the second example on the main page):

1 3 4 7 1 8 9 7 6 3 9 2

There is a bracelet of length 20 that starts with (0,4)

0 4 4 8 2 0 2 2 4 6 0 6 6 2 8 0 8 8 6 4

There is a bracelet of length 60 that starts with (0,1)

(I'll let you have the fun of writing all the beads.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to divide 56 by 7 and you will get 8.

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

You're dividing the 56 cookies into 7 bags, so you write 56 ÷ 7 = 8

Answer:

Well the answer would be 865,920. Hope this helped! this is the way i learned it so if its wrong i'm super sorry!

Step-by-step explanation:

I = p x r x t

I = 82,000 x 8 x 11yrs

BUT WAIT! this is MONTHLY, so convert 11 x 12 = 132 and then move 8 back 2 spaces = 0.08 so the correct equation is

I = 82,000 x 0.08 x 132

I = 865,920

666666666666666666766666666

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

i saw the answer sheet :)

Answer:

I don't know

Step-by-step explanation:

plus all of them = Answer

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

False    Line of symmetry is x = -1

False   The maximum of f(x) = 3  

we can find the maximum of f(x) by putting it in vertex form (y - 3) = - 1(x + 7)² which tells us that the vertex is at (-7, 3)

True     -7 < -1

You can use the definition of a function to classify which mapping is a function and which mapping is not a function.

The first group is not a function as there are two outputs for 0

The second group is a function as there are single output to each input.

There are two sets of values. When we connect first set's values with other set, it is called mapping one set's value to other set. All type of mappings are called relations.

Such relations which are such that each element of the first set(also called input set or domain) is mapped to only one value of the other set(called codomain, and if all values are occupied, then called range or output set), then such relation is called function.

So, for a mapping to be function, we need each input to be mapped to only one output.

For group 1, we see that 0 has output 1 and output 5 both. Since for a mapping to be a function, we need each input to have single output, thus, this group doesn't represent a function.

For group 2, we see that each input has only one output, thus,this group represents a function.

Remember that we assumed that the pair of points were written as

(input, output)

Thus.

The first group is not a function as there are two outputs for 0

The second group is a function as there are single output to each input.

Learn more about functions here:

https://brainly.com/question/13395697

Answer:

1 Tenths = 10 Hundredths

10.74 - 10.60 = 0.14

0.14 = 14 hundredths

Thus, you need 10 ones, 6 tenths and 14 hundredths to make 10.74.

Answer:

a₈ = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute n = 8 into the nth term rule

A(8) = - 12 + 2(8 - 1) = - 12 + 2(7) = - 12 + 14 = 2

[tex]\dfrac 27 >b +\dfrac 57\\\\\implies 2 > 7b +5~~~;[ \text{Multiplying both sides by 7}]\\\\\implies 2-5>7b\\\\\implies -3>7b\\\\\implies -\dfrac 37 >b\\\\\implies b<-\dfrac 37\\\\\\\text{Interval,}~ \left(-\infty, -\dfrac 37 \right)[/tex]

Answer:

-67/12168

Step-by-step explanation:

(5/12-11/13)/3/26​ Find the least common denominator to get

65/156 - 132/156 = -67/156

-67/156 /3 /26 multiply -67/156 by 1/3 to get -67/468

-67/468 /26 multiply -67/468 by 1/26 to get 12168

-67/12,168

Probabilities are used to determine the chances of events.

The given parameters:

[tex]n = 5[/tex] ---- the number of candy bars

[tex]p = 40\%[/tex] ---- the probability of selling a candy bar

(a) Name distributions

The distribution of X is represented as:

[tex]X \sim(r,p)[/tex]

Where:

[tex]r = 5[/tex]

[tex]p= \frac{5\times 40\%}{10}[/tex]

[tex]p= 0.2[/tex]

So, the name distribution of X is [tex]X \sim(r= 5,p = 0.2)[/tex]

(b) The probability that the last candy is sold at the 11th house

This means that:

[tex]n = 10[/tex] --- the number of previous houses

[tex]r = 4[/tex] --- the previous number of candies

[tex]p = 0.4[/tex] --- the given probability of selling a candy

The probability is calculated using:

[tex]P(x = n+1) = ^{n}C_r \times p^{r +1} \times (1 - p)^{n-r}[/tex]

This gives

[tex]P(x = 10+1) = ^{10}C_4 \times 0.4^{4 +1} \times (1 - 0.4)^{10-4}[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = ^{10}C_4 \times 0.4^{5} \times (0.6)^6[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 210 \times 0.4^5 \times 0.6^6[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1003290624[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1003[/tex]

Hence, the probability that the last candy is sold at the 11th house is 0.1003

(b) The probability he sells the candies on or before the 8th house

The probability is calculated using:

[tex]P(x \le 8) = P(5 \le x \le 8)[/tex]

This gives

[tex]P(x \le 8) = ^{10}C_5 \times 0.4^{6} \times (0.6)^5 + ^{10}C_6 \times 0.4^{7} \times (0.6)^4 + ^{10}C_7 \times 0.4^{8} \times (0.6)^3 +^{10}C_8 \times 0.4^{9} \times (0.6)^2[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1737[/tex] ---- approximated

Hence, the probability he sells the candies on or before the 8th house is 0.1737

Read more about probabilities at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

Answer:

whats the question.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think D because CBD is half of ABC

Step-by-step explanation:

If I am wrong I appologize

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

it is two left night

Answer:

[tex]3x + 14[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:  Distribute

[tex]4x + 2(3x + 7) - 7x[/tex]

[tex]4x + (2 * 3x) + (2 * 7) - 7x[/tex]

[tex]4x + 6x + 14 - 7x[/tex]

Step 2:  Combine like terms

[tex]4x + 6x + 14 - 7x[/tex]

[tex](4x + 6x - 7x) + 14[/tex]

[tex]3x + 14[/tex]

Answer:  [tex]3x + 14[/tex]

Check the picture below.

Answer:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Correct answer: 2.25