DDT was developed as a synthetic insecticide. In 1972, DDT was banned for use in the United States due to its damaging environmental effects. In 3-5 sentences explain how introducing DDT into an ecosystem would impact a food chain. Be sure to include all relevant vocabulary in your answer

Answers

Answer 1

DDT has adverse affect on our environment due to its presence for a long time. In 1972, DDT was banned for use in the United States due to its damaging environmental effects.

What is DDT?

DDT is an insecticide that can pass up in the food chain i.e. from insects to small birds, and then from small birds to big birds like hawks. High concentrations of DDT in birds leads to weakness in the egg shells.

This leads to a decrease in their population so we can conclude that DDT has adverse affect on our environment due to its presence for a long time.

Therefore, DDT has adverse affect on our environment due to its presence for a long time. In 1972, DDT was banned for use in the United States due to its damaging environmental effects.

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Related Questions

Which one of which of the following is not a part of an atom?

Proton

Molecule

Neutron

Electron

Answers

I think A. Proton?
I hope this helps!

all of these are environmental problems associated with pesticide use in the u.s. except a. human health concerns. c. pesticide persistence. b. pesticide resistance. d. the ongoing application of ddt.

Answers

With the exception of (d), which continues to be applied ddt, all of these are environmental issues related to pesticide use in the United States.

What are persistent pesticides?

Organochlorine pesticides, which make up the majority of persistent pesticides, are so-called because of their environmental stability and resistance to deterioration. It is possible to assess persistence by grouping pesticide half-lives into three categories. These fall into three categories: low (16 days or less) moderate (16 to 59 days), and high (over 60 days). Because they are significantly less likely to linger in the environment, pesticides with shorter half-lives tend to accumulate less.

Are pesticides persistent pollutants?

Organochlorine pesticides like DDT, industrial chemicals, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB), as well as unintended byproducts of numerous industrial processes, including polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins (PCDD) and dibenzofurans (PCDF), often known as dioxins, are the most frequently encountered POPs.

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_____solutions have the same concentration of water and solutes inside
and outside cells allowing cells to retain their normal shape.

Answers

Answer: ISOTONIC solutions have the same concentration of water and solutes inside and outside cells allowing cells to retain their normal shape.

Explanation: Self-explanatory after reading together.

molecules that absorb specific wavelength of sunlight

Answers

Answer:

Pigments absorb specific wavelength of sunlight.

Explanation:

Instead, pigments, which are light-absorbing compounds found in photosynthetic organisms, only absorb some visible light wavelengths while reflecting others. The range of wavelengths that a pigment absorbs is known as its absorption spectrum.

when a small egg is dropped onto the piece of 1-inch foam, from which height did the egg break entirely? select all that apply.

Answers

When dropped onto an inch of foam, the little egg didn't completely crack.

When thrown from the a height of ten metres onto one of the impact surfaces, the enormous egg never cracked. According to Newton's First Law, the egg didn't want to stop moving once it started. The water container stopped the egg's descent and gave it a secure location to stop so you could catch it unharmed. The water splashed out as a result of the gravity-driven egg. The cup dropping shows how potential energy becomes kinetic energy. After an external force (gravity) strikes upon the egg, the energy stored from the eggs transforms into kinetic energy. The experiment's findings provide credence to the theory. When dropped onto an inch of foam, the little egg didn't completely crack. Making a receptacle that can keep a boiled egg from breaking when thrown from roughly 15 feet is achievable.

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Option c is Correct.  It experiences the most acceleration when falling from a height of 10 m in comparison to the other two heights. (since 1 inch of foam = 10 m).

Because a force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its change in momentum, according to Newton's second rule of motion, falling from a height of 10 meters will result in greater acceleration and, thus, greater velocity.

This velocity abruptly drops to zero upon impact, creating a powerful impulse that has a greater propensity to totally fracture the egg shell. The small egg only partially cracked when it was dropped onto an inch of foam. The gigantic egg never cracked when it was dropped from a height of 10 meters onto one of the impact surfaces. Newton's First Law indicated that the egg didn't want to stop moving.

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Correct Question:

When a small egg is dropped onto the piece of 1-inch foam, from which height did the egg

break entirely? Select all that apply.

a. When dropped from 1 meter.

b. When dropped from 5 meters.

c. When dropped from 10 meters.

d. The small egg never broke when dropped onto 1-inch foam.

To have motion, a body must experience a change in what? (A) position (B) velocity (C) acceleration (D) momentum.

Answers

Since we know from the description that it's the rate of change of velocity if a body is accelerated, its haste must change as well.

Velocity and speed describe how snappily or sluggishly an object is moving. We constantly encounter circumstances when we must determine which of two or further moving objects is going faster.However, it's simple to determine which is hastily, If the two are travelling on the same route in the same direction. It's challenging to identify who's moving the fastest when their stir is in the other direction. The conception of velocity is useful in the circumstances like these for analysis.

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A body's haste must change if it is accelerated, as we infer from the explanation that the rate of change in velocity is what changes.

Speed and velocity are terms used to indicate how quickly or slowly an object is moving. We frequently find ourselves in situations where we must choose which of two or more moving objects is travelling quicker. If the two are moving in the same direction and on the same path, it is easy to tell which is moving quickly. When someone is stirring in the opposite direction from you, it can be difficult to tell who is going the fastest. In situations like this, the concept of velocity is helpful for analysis.

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During which stage of mitosis and/or meiosis do homologs segregate? Anaphase I of meiosis Anaphase of mitosis Anaphase II of meiosis Both anaphase I and II of meiosis

Answers

Homologous Chromosome Segregate during Anaphase I of Meiosis.

Option A is the Correct Answer.

Homologous Chromosomes are a Pair in which one is inherited from mother and other from father. They segregate during Meiosis to form gametes. In the first, known as meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes separate and segregate.

During meiosis II the sister chromatids separate and segregate. In Meiosis one Diploid parent cell will segregate to form four haploid daughter cells. Meiosis is further divided into 2 divisions as Meiosis I and Meiosis II. The formation of Ovum is called Oogenesis and Sperm is called Spermatogenesis. Both processes are together known as Gametogenesis.

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During the initial round of cell division, known as meiosis I, homologue pairs split apart.

Sister chromatids split apart during meiosis II, the second round. During meiosis, cells divide twice, resulting in the production of four gametes from a single starting cell.Nearly all of your body's cell division requirements are met by mitosis. Throughout your life, it adds new cells throughout development and replaces ageing and worn-out cells. Mitosis aims to create daughter cells that are completely genetically similar to their mothers, with no extra or less chromosomes.On the other hand, meiosis serves a single function in the human body: the generation of gametes, also known as sperm and eggs or sexual cells. Making daughter cells with precisely half as many chromosomes is its aim as the starting cell.

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what distinguishes a linear metabolic pathway from a cyclic metabolic pathway?

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A sequence of metabolic reactions leads to the end product in a linear metabolic route. On the other hand, a cyclic metabolic pathway has a cycle where the initial reactant is created at the conclusion.

Linear Metabolic routes entail the transformation of one chemical into another compound by passing through several intermediates. An illustration would be the process of glycolysis, which turns glucose into pyruvate.

A sequence of metabolic reactions leads to the end product in a linear metabolic route. On the other hand, a cyclic metabolic pathway has a cycle where the initial reactant is created at the conclusion.

Catabolic pathways, which break down compounds, and anabolic pathways, which create substances from raw materials, are the two different types of metabolic processes. In catabolic processes, energy is released, whereas, in anabolic pathways, energy is used up.

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Rising air creates what type of pressure system at the surface?
precipitation
diverging
converging
low
high

Answers

Rising air creates a low pressure system at the surface.

A low pressure system is an area where the atmospheric pressure is lower than the surrounding areas. Rising air is a key factor in the formation of low pressure systems because as air rises, it cools and expands, which decreases its density and creates an area of lower pressure. Low pressure systems are often associated with clouds and precipitation because the rising air can lead to the formation of clouds and storms as the air cools and moisture condenses.

High pressure systems are characterized by sinking air and are associated with clear and stable weather.

Converging refers to the movement of air towards a certain point and diverging refers to the movement of air away from a certain point. They are not related to pressure systems.

Precipitation is the release of water droplets or ice crystals from the atmosphere that falls to the surface. It can be associated with low-pressure systems but it is not the same as a low-pressure system.

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Rising air creates a low-pressure system at the surface. When air rises, it expands and cools, leading to a decrease in pressure at the surface. Here option D is the correct answer.

This decrease in pressure creates an area of low pressure at the surface, also known as a diverging pressure system. Diverging air at the surface creates an area of decreased air pressure which causes air to move away from the center of the low-pressure system.

This creates an area of reduced cloudiness and precipitation. This is an important aspect of the global atmospheric circulation, which drives the winds and weather patterns around the world, and can be influenced by other factors such as temperature, humidity, and topography.

Complete question:

Rising air creates what type of pressure system at the surface?

A - precipitation

B - diverging

C - converging

D - low

E - high

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Any type of data that may either agree or disagree with a prediction so that it may either support or disprove a hypothesis is known as​

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Evidence is any sort of data that may support or refute a hypothesis and may either agree or disagree with a prediction.

What is hypothesis?

Hypothesis is a fact whose exsistence need to be proved.

Every hypothesis be it scientific or for a social cause needs to be proved with documents which we call evidences, these might be individuals, papers, circumstances, methodology etc.

An explanation for a phenomenon is put forth as a hypothesis. According to the scientific method, a hypothesis must be testable in order to qualify as a scientific hypothesis.

Usually, scientists build their ideas on earlier discoveries that raise questions about the reliability of the corpus of current information.

A methodology is the step-by-step process for conducting a scientific experiment.

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scan section 1 of the chapter and make a list of three general ways in which cells use energy

Answers

Answer:

Chemical, digestion mechanical, thinking

The antenna of a shrimp carry sensory organs the muscles of the legs are organs of move ment. The shrimp exhibits a fluht reaction upon facing a danger use this pic to interpret this reaction​

Answers

The antennae of a shrimp carry sensory organs that allow the shrimp to detect changes in its environment, such as the presence of predators or other potential dangers.

The shrimp can swim and move around in its environment because to the muscles in its legs, which are its organs of movement.

A shrimp's "flight" reaction, a type of survival mechanism that enables fast escape from damage, is exhibited in the presence of danger. The shrimp uses its powerful leg muscles to swim quickly away from the imagined danger in this reaction. The sensory organ-equipped antennae of the shrimp pick up on the threat and send a message to the brain, which sets off the flight response. For the shrimp to survive in the wild, it is essential that it be able to recognize danger rapidly and react with a flight reflex.

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When a shrimp senses danger, it exhibits a ‘flight reaction’, which is a process of quickly escaping from danger. The antennae of the shrimp are sensory organs that detect changes in the environment and alert the shrimp to the presence of danger.

The muscles of the shrimp’s legs then contract, allowing the shrimp to swim away quickly and escape the threat.

This flight reaction is a survival instinct that helps shrimp to evade predators. It is an example of an innate behavior, meaning that the shrimp does not need to learn it. The shrimp is born with the reflex to swim away when it senses danger, and this instinct can help it to survive in its aquatic environment.

Additionally, the shrimp’s antennae and legs are both essential for the flight reaction to occur, so the shrimp must rely on both parts of its body to react quickly and escape.

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how is cohesin tagged differently in mitosis and meiosis to allow for proper segregation of chromatids?

Answers

In the process of mitosis, the cohesion of sister chromatids at the centromere breaks down at the conclusion of metaphase, while during meiosis, the chromatids continue to be united at the centromere throughout the first anaphase of the process

In the process of mitosis, the cohesion of sister chromatids at the centromere breaks down at the conclusion of metaphase. This gives the daughter chromosomes the ability to separate and travel toward the two poles of the spindle. In contrast, during meiosis, the chromatids continue to be united at the centromere throughout the first anaphase of the process.

During the first stage of meiosis, a protease known as separase cleaves cohesin, which is found on the chromosome arms. This opens the door for the separation of homologous chromosomes.

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A mutation occurs in which the mRNA strand synthesized from the nuclear DNA is translated into a protein. What is the likely cause of mutation?
A. RNA processing did not occur.
B. A point mutation caused a frameshift.
C. The mRNA did not move into the cytoplasm.
D. Multiple ribosomes attached to the mRNA during translation.

Answers

Therefore, once it reaches the mutation, the ribosome will read the mRNA sequence differently. As a result, the developing polypeptide chain may produce amino acids that are in a completely different sequence.

Where do mutations occur?Somatic and germ-line mutations are the two basic classifications of mutations, respectively, according to where they take place. Cells incapable of reproduction experience somatic mutations. The ability of genetically normal body cells to adjust for the mutant cells means that many types of somatic mutations have no evident impact on an organism. Other mutations, however, can have a significant impact on an organism's existence and ability to function. For instance, numerous cancer types are characterized by somatic mutations that alter cell division, particularly those that enable uncontrolled cell division.Gametes or the cells that will one day create gametes can develop germ-line mutations. Germ-line mutations are transmitted to an organism's offspring, in contrast to somatic mutations.The mutation will therefore be present in all of an organism's cells in subsequent generations (both somatic and germ-line).

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How do seeds make angiosperms and gymnosperms more fit to reproduce on land than ferns and mosses?

Answers

Ferns and mosses are both seedless plants, while conifers are gymnosperms, which produce seeds.

What makes gymnosperm different from moss and ferns?

The seeds make angiosperms and gymnosperms suitable to reproduce on land by Ferns making their seeds either bear interior plants or on the scales of cones. They make it so the seeds have to copy on land because the seed's pollen has to go to sure gymnosperms' places such as in a flower or on cones.

Gymnosperms require wind to breed but ferns need water for the sperm to swim through. Gymnosperms have wood lignin and cork cambium and are more constitutional rigid and thick because of layers of dead lesser vascular tissue. Ferns do not have wood or bark.

So we can conclude that Gymnosperms on the other hand have seeds, while they are not put inside an ovary.

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A population of water beetle lives in a small pond on a cattle range. During a severe drought, a herd of cattle accidentally drink up many water beetles from a water source, preventing the beetle's genes from being passed to future generations. Which of the following evolutionary mechanisms is represented by this scenario?
A.Gene Flow
B.Genetic Drift
C.Independent Assortment
D.Mutation

Answers

I believe the answer is A

In certain species of horses, a roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr)
homozygotes. Which type type of inheritance does this example represent?
A. Co-Dominance
B. Incomplete Dominance
C. Polygenetic inheritance
D. Segregation
4

Answers

Answer:

Option B is correct that is Incomplete dominance.

Incomplete dominance is a type of gene interaction in which both alleles of the same gene at the same locus are partially expressed, culminating in an intermediate or distinct phenotype. It is often referred to as partial dominance.

Explanation:

Co Dominance

1. Two parent phenotypes co-express in their child.

2. Neither allele is dominant or recessive over the other.

3. The creation of a new phenotype will not emerge from a hybrid.

Individuals of blood group ABO, for example, have Codominance. A and B are dominant in relation to O, but not in relation to each other.

Incomplete Dominance

1. Two parents combine to produce a new phenotype for their offspring.

2. One allele does not totally outnumber the other.

2. Every hybrid will produce a new phenotype.

Snapdragon, for example, Antirrhinum majus (pink flowers are the resultant when crossed between a homozygous red flower and a homozygous white flower)

"Polygenic inheritance is a sort of quantitative heredity in which numerous separate genes have a similar or additive influence on a single quantitative feature."

Polygenic inheritance can also be referred to as multiple gene inheritance or multiple factor inheritance.

•A polygene is a gene that, in conjunction with other genes, has little influence on phenotype.

•Because the effect of a single gene is so modest, it is difficult to determine.

The law of segregation is the second law of heredity. This law describes how a pair of alleles segregate from each other during meiosis cell division (gamete production), such that each gamete has just one allele.

Both alleles are expressed in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross with no mixing. As a result, the law of segregation is predicated on the fact that each gamete only carries one allele.

This theory is predicated on four basic concepts:

•A gene can exist in more than one allele form.

•When meiosis produces gametes, the allelic pairings split, leaving each gamete with only one allele.

•Each characteristic has two alleles that each creature inherits.

•A pair's two alleles vary in that one is dominant and the other is recessive.

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in dna fingerprinting what do restriction enzymes do

Answers

Restriction enzymes will use the recognition sequence to identify every location on a DNA molecule and cut the DNA there



Most scientists now subscribe to the three-domain system of classifying organisms, which has

replaced the five-kingdom system. Which is the main reason for this change?

(1 Point)

Answers

The main reason for the change from the five-kingdom system to the three-domain system of classifying organisms is based on molecular evidence, specifically the analysis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences.

The three-domain system was proposed by Carl Woese in 1977 and it is based on the idea that there are three major branches of life: Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya.

The three-domain system recognizes that the prokaryotic organisms (Bacteria and Archaea) are more different from each other than they are from the eukaryotic organisms (Eukarya) and therefore they should be placed in separate domains.

The five-kingdom system, on the other hand, placed prokaryotic organisms in the same kingdom as eukaryotic organisms.

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The main reason for the change from the five-kingdom system to the three-domain system of classifying organisms is based on molecular evidence, specifically the analysis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences.

The three-domain system was proposed by Carl Woese in 1977 and it is based on the idea that there are three major branches of life: Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya. The three-domain system recognizes that the prokaryotic organisms (Bacteria and Archaea) are more different from each other than they are from the eukaryotic organisms (Eukarya) and therefore they should be placed in separate domains. The five-kingdom system, on the other hand, placed prokaryotic organisms in the same kingdom as eukaryotic organisms.

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movement along the sagittal plane that decreases the angle between two bones

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Flexion is a bone-to-bone motion that occurs along the sagittal plane and reduces the angle between the bones.

Flexion is a joint action that reduces the angle between two neighboring body segments. With extension, the body segments' angles are increased in the opposite direction.

You can move forward and backward in the sagittal plane, which divides your body into left and right halves. When you consider a regular workout split or if you have more experience with programming.

This arises as a result of a greater angle between the articulating bones (usually in the sagittal plane back to the anatomical position). The femur and tibia, for instance, form a greater angle when the leg is straightened.

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Correct Question:

What is the movement along the sagittal plane that decreases the angle between two bones?

The movement along the sagittal plane that decreases the angle between two bones is referred to as flexion. This movement is defined as a movement that decreases the angle between two bones and is typically seen in joints such as the knee and elbow.

Flexion is one of the types of movement that can occur in the sagittal plane. Other types of movement in the sagittal plane include extension, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion. Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the superior aspect of the foot towards the leg, as in standing on the heels, while plantarflexion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot downward, as in pointing the toes. It's important to note that dorsiflexion of the hand is a confusing term and is rarely used.

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cells found in the nervous system that insulate, nourish and direct the growth of neurons as well as remove dead neurons and waste products are known as

Answers

The glial cells (glia) are the cells found in the nervous system that insulates, nourishes, and direct the growth of neurons, removing dead neurons and waste products.

These cells, referred to as the glue of the nervous system, are a part of the peripheral and central nervous systems. In the peripheral nervous system, the Schwann and satellite glial cells are found. In the central nervous system, there are five types of glial cells - microglia, radial glia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells.

The glial cells provide and maintain a suitable environment for the neurons by giving them chemical and physical support. It also maintains homeostasis.

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Glial cells or the glia are the cells which are found in the nervous system and perform the function of insulating, nourishing and directing the growth of neurons as well as removing dead neurons and waste products.

Glial cells are basically a type of cell which provides physical as well as chemical support to the neurons and maintain their environment. They are located in the central nervous system or the CNS and peripheral nervous system.

Glial cells are also sometimes referred to as neuroglia or just glia. There are five basic types of glial cells namely radial glia, astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells. They direct the growth of neurons and even remove the dead neurons as well as the waste product.

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calcium is released and sequestered differently in skeletal and cardiac muscles. what is one physiological relevance of cardiac muscle calcium handling?

Answers

Calcium is released and sequestered differently in skeletal and cardiac muscles, this difference is due to the specific properties of the muscle fibers of each muscle.

In skeletal muscle, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) into the cytoplasm in response to an action potential. In cardiac muscle, calcium is released from the SR and also from the extracellular space. This difference in calcium handling is physiologically relevant because in cardiac muscle, calcium ions play a key role in the contraction and relaxation of cardiac muscle fibers. Calcium ions bind to the protein troponin, which then triggers a series of events that result in muscle contraction. The cardiac muscle fibers are able to release calcium ions from the SR and extracellular space, this allows for a more rapid and sustained contraction of the cardiac muscle, which is necessary for the efficient pumping of the blood throughout the body.

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this gland secretes melatonin, a hormone that may help regulate when you sleep at night is

Answers

The major job of the pineal gland is to take information about the environment's status of the light-dark cycle and transmit it by producing and secreting the hormone melatonin.

Photoperiodic organisms use melatonin secretion length as a signal of changing photoperiod to time their seasonal physiology. Certain sleep disorders associated with irregularities in the circadian rhythm, such as delayed sleep phase syndrome, non-24-hour sleep waking disorder, and jet lag, are treated with melatonin alone. Since melatonin has been linked to numerous physiological functions, it might eventually have more wide medicinal applications.

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Pineal gland is known for the secretion of Melatonin hormone at night.

Pineal gland being an embryologically part of the brain, is known for the secretion of Melatonin hormone only. This hormone is released in response to the darkness and because of the same reason it is also known as the 'hormone of darkness'.

Serotonin undergoes a series of enzymatic reactions to form the final product that is melatonin.

Melatonin is known for its various therapeutic effects especially for the accountability and concern associated with various sleeping disorders, however diseases like obesity and hypertension could result in lesser effective effects.

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Antigens- Red blood cells have unique
surfaces.
.
·
Antibodies- Blood antigens
the production of special proteins called
antibodies. They initiate an immune response against other types of red blood
cells.
.
called antigens on their
Each person has the A antigen, B antigen, both the A and B
antigens, or none of the antigens on their red blood cells.
For example, an A-antigen red blood cell will make antibodies
against any B-antigen red blood cell.
There is one exception to antibody production in the blood. Red
blood cells with both the A and B antigens on their surfaces do not
To do so would cause an attack on
make A or B
their red blood cells.
Rhesus factor- There is another type of
calleda Rhesus factor or an Rh antigen.
found on red blood cells

Answers

Red blood cells have unique proteins called antigens on their surface.Blood antigens trigger the production of special proteins called antibodies. They initiate an immune response against other types of red blood cells. There is one exception to antibody production in the blood. Red blood cells with both the A and B antigens on their surfaces do not make A or B antibodies against their red blood cells. To do so would cause an attack on their red blood cells.There is another type of antigen found on red blood cells called a Rhesus factor or an Rh antigen.

What are Antigens?

An antigen is a molecule or molecular structure, as well as any foreign particulate matter or pollen grain, that can attach to a particular antibody or T-cell receptor in immunology. Antigens in the body can cause an immunological response.

Antigens can be found on viruses, bacteria, cancers, and normal bodily cells. Antigen testing is used to detect viral infections, monitor and screen for certain illnesses, and assess if a donor is a good match for a transplant.

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to what diameter must it be expanded to increase the blood flow by a factor of 5.0 with no change in pressure?

Answers

Increasing the radius of the vessel by a factor of the square root of 5 would increase blood flow by a factor of 5.0 while maintaining constant pressure.

The relationship between blood flow, pressure, and diameter of a vessel is complex and influenced by many factors, such as the viscosity of the blood, the elasticity of the vessel walls, and the resistance of the vessel to distension. However, in general, blood flow is directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius of a vessel. This is known as Poiseuille's law.

If we want to increase the blood flow by a factor of 5, we need to increase the radius of the vessel by a factor of the square root of 5.

The formula to calculate the diameter:

Diameter = (5^(1/4)) * Diameter_initial

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Explain the comparative uses of the USDA Hardiness Zones and the Koppen-Geiger Scale.

Answers

The USDA Hardiness Zones and the Koppen-Geiger Scale are two different systems that are used to classify and compare the climates of different regions.

What are USDA Hardiness Zones and Koppen-Geiger Scale?

The USDA Hardiness Zones is a system used to classify the minimum temperatures that a specific type of plant can survive in a particular area. The zones are based on the average annual minimum temperature of a region, and are divided into 11 zones, from zone 1 (the coldest) to zone 11 (the warmest). This system is commonly used by horticulturists, gardeners, and farmers to determine which types of plants can be grown in a specific location.

The Koppen-Geiger Climate Classification system, also known as the Koppen climate classification, is a widely used system for classifying the climates of the world. It was developed by the German climatologist Wladimir Köppen in the late 1800s and was later modified by his student Rudolf Geiger.

The system is based on the temperature and precipitation patterns of a region, and is divided into five main climate groups: A (tropical), B (dry), C (temperate), D (continental), and E (polar). This system is commonly used by meteorologists, climatologists, and geographers to study and compare the climates of different regions.

In summary, USDA Hardiness Zones are used to classify the minimum temperatures that a specific type of plant can survive in a particular area, while the Koppen-Geiger Climate Classification system is used to classify the climates of different regions based on temperature and precipitation patterns.

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* 9. anteaters evolved long claws from ancestors that had shorter claws. think about the first anteater to have claws as long as modern anteaters. why did this individual have such long claws?

Answers

Because the anteater need large claws to consume, a mutation altered its DNA. Long claws were evolved because the anteater needed them to dig out ants.

The anteater removed numerous anthills, and these actions harmed its claws: The anteater was fortunate that a genetic mistake resulted in long claws.

The four mammal species of the suborder Vermilingua which means "worm tongue" commonly go by the label "anteater." These animals are notorious for consuming termites and ants.

The many species are known by different names in English and other languages. They belong to the order Pilosa, which also includes sloths. Aardvarks, numbats, echidnas, pangolins, and some members of the Oecobiidae are also frequently referred to as "anteaters," despite not being closely related to them.

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how long after exposure to strep do symptoms appear?

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An individual exposed to group A strep germs typically takes two to five days to become unwell with strep throat.

Till they have taken antibiotics for at least 24 hours, refrain from coming into contact with anyone who has strep throat. Don't exchange personal goods like toothbrushes either. When you cough or sneeze while suffering with strep, be cautious to cover your mouth. People with strep throat might be contagious for up to a few days before they begin to exhibit  symptoms, which is unfortunate given how quickly streptococcal germs spread.  This implies that a person who is not yet ill can spread the illness.

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After contact to the bacterium, symptoms of strep throat often start to manifest 2 to 5 days later. One to three days following contact to the germs, symptoms of strep throat usually start to manifest.

However, in rare circumstances, symptoms may not start to manifest for up to 5 days. Sore throat, fever, enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, and red, swollen tonsils are the most typical signs of strep throat. Headache, nauseousness, discomfort in the abdomen, and vomiting are possible additional symptoms. Scarlet fever, which can also cause a rash in certain people, is known. It's crucial to keep in mind that not everyone who has strep throat will experience all of these symptoms, and some people may even show no symptoms at all. To avoid problems, it's crucial to get checked out by a doctor if you think you might have strep throat.

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this picture of a yeast has been artificially colored green to help with viewing. what is potentially confusing about this color choice for a member of the fungi?

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if the yeast, which is member of fungi comes under the class Ascomycota, they are single celled eukaryotic microorganisms, is colored artificially green it may not be visible, common dye like calcofluor white, DAPI, DASPMI, FM4-64, and DIOC6 are used for staining the yeast.

yeast under the microscope can be seen as a  oval shaped microscopic bodies, which are the yeast cells’ units of protoplasm.

it can be seen either in compound or advanced light microscopes.

yeast reproduces either by budding or fission.

yeast is fund in sugar habits, as they do not have chlorophyll they are off white and hence are not heterotrophic but rely on inorganic substances.

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when banting and best performed their experiments on dogs, they need approval from a committee before they could begin animal work. true false

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The given statement that "Banting and Best needed the approval from a committee before they could begin animal work when they performed their experiments on dogs." is false as they needed approval from ohn James Rickard Macleod.

Insulin was discovered by Frederick Bаnting аnd Chаrles Best in the early 1920s аt the University of Toronto under the directorship of John Mаcleod.  The insulin wаs purified with the help of Jаmes Collip and then it was made аvаilаble for the successful treаtment of the disease called diаbetes. Bаnting аnd Mаcleod received а Nobel Prize for their work in 1923.

They conducted their experiments on dogs having diabetes. When Banting and Best were performing their experiments on dogs, they needed approval from John James Rickard Macleod before they could begin their animal work.

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