A spinner has numbers from 1-5. What is the probability of spinning a multiple of 2?

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

y2-y1 divided by x2-x1

12-3 divided by 20-11

which equals to 9/9 which equals to 1

Answer:

The answer is 3450

Step-by-step explanation:

I=Prt

P=??

I=115

r=5%

t=8 months which is two thirds of a year

115=P×5%×2/3

115=1/30P

P=3450

Answer:

450

Step-by-step explanation:

No. of bread per hour multiplied by No of hours

Answer:

432

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 18 and 24 and you get your answer:)

Answer:

3) B    4) D

Step-by-step explanation:

3) Graph the equations and locate the intersection.

4) the best method to solve number 4 is the substitution method

6x+7y=20

y=2x

we second equation is basically telling us that y=2x so we just plug it into the first equation

6x+7(2x)=20

distribute

6x+14x=20

combine like terms

20x=20

divide each side by 20

x=1

now plug in our answer into one of the equations (does not matter which one)

y=2 times 1

y=2

meaning that our answer is (1,2), x=1  y=2

1st : , Her parents didnt think much of it until she started to skip dinner with her family and even refused to go to school.'

2nd : , And with every post they make on their favorite social media site, they may be opening themselfs to all kinds of medical problems. '

brainliest<3?

Answer:

5:2 please give me brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

RN = registered nurse

LPN = licensed practice nurse

RN earns $21.50 per hr

LPN earns $14 per hr

To calculate earnings for a 40 hour working week, multiply the rate per hour by 40:

RN earns:  21.50 × 40 = $860 per week

LPN earns:  14 × 40 = $560 per week

Difference:  860 - 560 = $300

Therefore, an RN is paid $300 more than an LPN for a 40 hour working week.

Number of weeks in a (non leap) year = number of days in a year ÷ 7

                                                               = 365 ÷ 7

                                                               = 52.14285714...

Rounding to the nearest whole number ⇒ 52 weeks in a year

To calculate the yearly salary, multiply the rate per week by 52:

RN earns:  860 × 52 = $44720 per year

LPN earns:  560 × 52 = $29120 per year

Difference:  44720 - 29120 = $15600

OR we can simply multiply the difference between the amount paid for a 40 hour week by 52:

⇒ 300 × 52 = $15600

Therefore, an RN is paid $15600 per year than an LPN.

Answer:

415.39 [tex]ft^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The system of equations formalizes the given relationships regarding the number of coins and their value.

  x + y = 18 . . . . . . Freya has 18 coins

  0.50x +1.00y = 13 . . . . their value is £13

_____

Additional comment

The solution can be found by subtracting the second equation from the first:

  0.5x = 5

  x = 10

  y = 18 -10 = 8

Freya has 10 50p coins and 8 £1 coins.

Step-by-step explanation:

The values are gotten by counting the shapes and noting their numbers, thereafter u perform your normal ratio operation on them.

Step-by-step explanation:

180°- 43° = 137°

because when angles are supplementary the add up to 180 degrees and since we have one of the angles we can easily find the other =>

Answer:

1. width = 4 inches length = 13 inches

2. 225 m²

Step-by-step explanation:

1. So we know there are two sides and one side is 9 more than the other.

We let one side be x as we don't know what the number is. The other side is x+9 as its 9 more than the first side but we don't what that is either.

We know the area of a rectangle is A = bh.

The two sides are x and x+9

so, x(x+9) = 52

x² + 9x = 52

x² + 9x - 52 = 0

x² + 13x - 4x - 52 = 0

x(x+13) -4(x+13) = 0

(x-4)(x+13) = 0

x = 4 x = 13

The answer is x = 4 because you can't have x = -13 as negative lengths don't exist.

So if one side is x and the other side is x+ 9. Then plugging in 4 to both gets us, 4 and 13 as the dimensions.

The length is 9 more than width so,

length = 13 inches and width = 4 inches.

2. We know the area of a rectangle is A = bh.

One side is x + 10 and the other is x+15

Area is 750.

(x+10)(x+15) = 750

x²+15x+10x+150 = 750

x²+15x+10x-600 = 0

x²+25x-600 = 0

(x+40)(x-15) = 0

x = 15 as we can't have x = -40 because negative distance does not exist.

The bistro has sides x and x.

So the area is x * x.

15 * 15 = 225 m².

Answer:

58

Step-by-step explanation:

First, round the number to the ones place.

We get 175.

Then, divide it by 3.

     5  8

  _____

3| 1  7  5

  -1  5

   ___

       2  5

     - 2  4

      ____

            1

quotient = 58

remainder = 1

So, the estimated quotient is 58.

Hope it helps!

Also, please mark my answer as brainliest.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

since the bucket of water is 10 inch and the fish tank is 30 then

Answer: D. (-4, 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

just the x, y

Answer:The answer is A (4, 4)

Step-by-step explanation: When reflected across the y-axis, the y coordinates stay the same, but the x coordinated change signs. In this case, the original x coordinate was -4. But after flipped across the y axis, the -4 changes to a positive 4, since it is in quadrant 1.

Answer:

184

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the common difference first   d = 6 - 4 = 2

first term  a_1  = 4

a_n = (n -1)*d + a_1

a_91 = (91 - 1) * 2 + 4

a_91  is the 91st term:

a_91 = 90*2 + 4

a_91 = 180 + 4 = 184

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

If 8 is added to 3(√9) it is more than 10. If 10 and 3(√9) is added it is more than 8. If 8 is added to 10 it more than 3(√9).

Percentage is a way to describe a part of a whole. The production of the footwear that will be in 2016 will be 1.65 billion.

A percentage is a way to describe a part of a whole. such as the fraction 1/4 can be described as 0.25 which is equal to 25%.

To convert a fraction to a percentage, convert the fraction to decimal form and then multiply by 100 with the '%' symbol.

It is given that the production of footwear in 2006 was 1.8 billion which will be reduced by 8.4%, therefore, the number of footwear that will be produced in 2016 is 91.6%(100%-8.4%) of the production in 2006. Therefore, the production of footwear in 2016 will be

[tex]91.6\%\ of\ 2006\\\\= 0.916 \times 1.8\ billion \\\\= 1.6488\approx 1.65\ billion[/tex]

Hence, the production of the footwear that will be in 2016 will be 1.65 billion.

Learn more about Percentage:

https://brainly.com/question/6972121

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

100 is 4p% of 250

hope it helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A and C

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are dividing exponents you subtract. So for this problem -8 - -4 = -8 + 4 = -4. This means that the new exponent would be -4.

When you have a negative exponent, the equation is a fraction. As an example x^-5 would be equal to 1/x^5. For this equation, since you know that the new exponent is -4, an equivalent equation would be 1/3^4.

Hope this helps

Answer:

25 miles, and the cost will be $37.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mose's charge can be represented by f(x) = 0.5x + 25, Holly's charge can be represented by g(x) = 0.3x + 30.

Set the equations equal to each other: 0.5x + 25 = 0.3x + 30.

0.2x = 5

x = 25

Substitute 25 for x: f(x) = 0.5(25) + 25 = 37.5, g(x) = 0.3(25) + 30 = 37.5.

So f(x) = g(x) at x = 25, and the output will be 37.5.

Answer:

0.0625.

Step-by-step explanation:

750/12000 as a fraction is 1/16, which is 0.0625.

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

You could divide 12000 by 16 and 750.

Answer:

-7x+8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-7x+8

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Answer:

100$

Step-by-step explanation:

Each lawn=20$

number of lawn mowed=5

20×5=100$

Answer:

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The third side can't be calculated with given information

2. This is right triangle so you can use Pythagorean theorem to find hypotenuse.

6^2 + 8^2 = c^2

36 + 64 = c^2

100 = c^2

10 = c = PR

Since PM = RM, you would take half of c to find PM. So PM = 5

3. When writing congruency statement, you have to be careful with orders.

Angle A is congruent to angle E.

Angle B is congruent to angle D

So if A comes first, then E should be written first for the other side (does that make sense?)

4. For SAS, you need 2 congruent sides and 1 congruent angle. But that angle has to be in between two congruent sides.

Start with definition of absolute value, |x|.

It says, |x| = x, for any x >= 0 and

|x| = -x, for any x < 0

 Now, instead of x, we have the expression x+120 inside the absolute value brackets:

|x+120|

Play the same game as above - what is the absolute value here?

|x+120| = x+120 for (x+120)>=0 and

|x+120| = -(x+120) for (x+120)<0

Now, recognize that the last condition (x+120)<0 is the same as writing x<-120. That is the condition in the question. Therefore the absolute value |x+120| will equal the second expression (for that condition), namely -(x+120), or -x-120.

Answer:

13 is the debt per 8 members

Answer:

ill try:

Learning about the connections between finding the GCF of numbers, the distributive property, multiplying polynomials, and factoring has helped me understand how to simplify and solve for equations. The distributive property taught me about how to easily simplifying equations, since the requirement is to just distribute the given to the number(s). Factoring has taught me how to make an equation easier to solve. For example, when I'm given a problem that has very large numbers, I can see if they have a GCF and this will help me solve the problem in no time!

I enjoyed learning about this and I found this module easy! Thank you!

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps! i tried my best from what i remember learning about this topic

Answer:

The GCF of numbers and distributive property work together in many ways